Matthew 19:4-6
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KJV
4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? 6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
See New Testament references to "the beginning". This passage is cited here as "accepting" events of early Genesis "as literally true". See comment here. —BP
This passage was referenced here (4.2.1) in our responses to the AACE discussion questions.
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Question: Does Matthew 19:4-6 mean that Genesis must be read literally?
The case for answering "Yes"
In extensive discussion at Questions if Genesis is not Literal, Colin reasoned as follows:
In pointing the Pharisees to the beginning, he infers that while they had read the writings available to them, they had not properly read them. Therefore, correct reading is important, to avoid dire consequences, as was evident in their misunderstanding of the writings leading to their erroneous question, and consequently the then current Jewish practice. He answered the question, not from Hillel or Shammai, their teachers, but from Moses, and thus defeated their malice.
What is the truth of its meaning? Matt 19/4 reveals how Jesus read and understood Genesis 1-2.
A harmonized historical reading is not just an alternatively valid reading to that of Evolutionary Creationists, who likewise accept the scriptures as an inspired revelation from God.
A different reading is not evidence that
- A text’s meaning is uncertain, or that
- We must avoid certainty in our belief about the scriptural meaning.
It’s a case of a right handling of the word of truth vs a tampering with the word of God.
Arguments are made for Gen 1-2 not being harmonious and non-historical in the Evolutionary creationist reading of them, but Jesus viewed Gen 1&2 as harmonious & historical.
Matt 19/4-5 cites
- Gen 1/1 – “in the beginning”;
- Gen 1/27 – "made them male & female";
- Gen 2/24 – re: marriage, as pronounced by God
From these, we find:
- Beginning: God’s revelation of the beginning pre-dates the giving of the Law to Moses.
- Both Gen 1/27 & 2/24 occurred at the beginning and therefore during the same timeframe, and therefore share a harmonized chronology.
- In Mt 19, Jesus couples Gen 1/27 and 2/24 together by saying, “and said”, meaning God pronounced the words of Gen 2/24. This highlights Adam’s prophetic role with God speaking though him all the words uttered by Adam as His prophet. The move towards marriage was “by the order of God”, and Adam but related that order for all posterity.
- Adam could only know the woman was bone of his bone and flesh of his flesh from God’s revelation to him, since the woman was made from his side while he was in a deep sleep and was brought to him (2/21-22).
- Paul highlights the prophetic nature of Gen 2/23 in Eph 5/28-29, which was a mystery referring to Christ and the ecclesia.
- Jesus read Gen 1-2 as coinciding chronologically, and therefore as a single story of God’s creation, not two accounts of creation.
- Jesus’ words “for this cause” a man leaves father and mother to marry, is a result of the purpose declared in Gen 1/27 (making them male and female), and what he declares in Gen 2/24 a man will do. The pronouncement in Gen 2/23 causes God’s declaration in v24 by commencing, “Therefore”. So, calling her ‘woman’ when brought to Adam – something arising from the manner of her creation from Adam’s side – is the reason why a man is to leave parents and marry a woman. He made them male and female, one female for one male; so that Adam could not divorce his wife, and take another, for there was no other for him to take.
The case for answering "No"
See responses and further discussion at Questions if Genesis is not Literal.
